Questions that Jehovah's Witnesses do not like to be asked...
Because they know the answer proves
their doctrine wrong! |
We speak the truth in
Love...
Jws advice for themselves
"How would you feel if proof is given
that what you believe is wrong? For example, say that you were in a car, traveling for the
first time to a certain place. You have a road map, but you have not taken the time to
check it carefully. Someone has told you the road to take. You trust him, sincerely
believing that the way he has directed you is correct. But suppose it is not? What if
someone points out the error? What if he, by referring to your own map, shows that you are
on the wrong road? Would pride or stubbornness prevent you from admitting that you are on
the wrong road? Well, then, if you learn from an examination of your Bible that you are
traveling a wrong religious road, be willing to change. Avoid the broad road to
destruction; get on the narrow road to life."
You Can Live Forever In Paradise On Earth,
pgs. 32-33
Questions that
Jehovah's Witnesses do not like to be asked.
- If the organization did not actually prophecy
the end in 1925 and 1975, then how come so many Witnesses left the faith immediately
afterwards? ("They lost roughly three-quarters of the movement between 1925 and 1928,
then suffered huge losses after 1975, when the end didn't come as they had implied over
and over again," said Jim Penton, an ex-Witness who writes entries on Jehovah's
Witnesses for the Encyclopedia Americana.)
- If the Watchtower organization rejects others
calling them "inspired" yet the Watchtower organization does call themselves
"God's Spirit-directed Prophet" what is the difference? Is there such a thing as
an "uninspired prophet"?
- Has the Society ever taught anything
scripturally incorrect?
- Might the Society be teaching anything
scripturally incorrect now?
- Since the Organization has received "new
light" regarding the 1914 generation, and completely changed their view on this, does
this mean that all the former Jehovah's witnesses who were disfellowshipped years ago for
the same view the organization is now teaching will automatically be accepted into
fellowship again? Were these Ex-Jw's in fact disfellowshipped for truth and knew things
that the governing body did not?
- Can Jehovah's Witnesses hold and discuss
openly with other Jehovah's Witnesses opinions that differ from orthodox Watch Tower
doctrine?
- Can individuals read & understand the
Bible alone, or do they need an organization and it's publications to do so?
- How do you prove from the Bible that 1935 was
the year for the selection to heaven stopped due to being filled? What is the difference
between a Catholic appealing to "what the organization tells him" about December
25 being the date of Jesus birthday and a Jw appealing to "what the
organization tells him" about the date 1935? Is it not hypocritical when you chide
the "poor deluded Catholic" that his faith cannot find a Bible passage to
support it, when the same goes for you and 1935?
- How do you know that there were any vacancies,
if any, in the 144,000 class if Jesus offered this to first century Christians? How can
the organization know the exact number of vacancies today without any records from the
first century?
- Why are you called, "Jehovah's
Witnesses" and not "Christians"? Since Jehovah's Witnesses appeal to Isa
43:12; 44:8 for scriptural support that they should be called, "Jehovah's
Witnesses" then what was the "new name" prophesied in Isa 62:2? Can't be
"Jehovah's Witnesses", for God already used it 20 chapters earlier. Could the
new name be "Christian" after our savior "Christ"?
- Why would the name God gave to His people not
be "Christians" since Acts 11:26 says, "The disciples were first called
Christians in Antioch"? Why is the name "Jehovah's Witness" found nowhere
in the New Testament, if that is God's divine name for His people under the new covenant?
Why would God wait almost 2000 years to suddenly start using the name "Jehovah's
Witness". Does this mean that first century Christians were not know as Jehovah's
Witnesses"?
- If the name Jehovah is so important, then why
is it never used in the entire Greek New Testament? If men edited out the name of God,
"YHWH" when they copied the New Testament, as only the Watchtower organization
claims, then how can we have any confidence in any of the New Testament? Should we discard
the New Testament or the Watchtower organization as unreliable?
- If the name "Jehovah" is so
important, then why does Acts 4:12 say, "There is salvation in no one else; for their
is no other name [v10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that has been given among men, by which
we must be saved"? Would this not have been the logical place for God to have used
the name "YHWH"?
- What is the correct spelling of God's proper
name "Yahweh" or "Jehovah"? If Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that
"Yahweh" is more proper, why do they misspell is "Jehovah"? If the
name of God is so important, then should you not only pronounce it correctly, but spell it
correctly too? Is not spelling more important than pronunciation?
- Since the Jehovah's Witness organization
currently rejects most of the teachings of its founder Charles Taze Russell (who was
president of the organization from 1879-1916), and since they also reject
"Judge" Joseph Franklin Rutherford, who succeeded Russell as president from 1916
- 1942, how can we be sure that in 25 more years, Jehovah's Witnesses won't also reject
the current president, Milton G. Henschel (1992 - present), as they did Russell and
Rutherford?
- What kind of confidence can anyone have in an
organization that rejected its founder and first two presidents for the first 63 years of
its existence? This represents about 53% of the time they have existed!
- Since the Watchtower organization claims
"apostolic succession" who was it that "passed the torch of God's
Spirit" to C. T. Russel when he founded the organization? What was the name of this
individual?
- In the NWT, every time the Greek word
"proskuneo" is used in reference to God, it is translated as
"worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every time
"proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as
"obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is
the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word
"prosekunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and
used with reference to Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this
inconsistency? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as
"worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ read?
- The NWT translates the Greek word
"kyrios" as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament
(Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, 1Thess 5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8,
etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear in the Greek
text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as "Jehovah"
in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)?
- To what was Jesus referring to by the term
"this temple" in Jn 2:18- 19? See Jn 2:21.
- If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active
force, why does he directly speak and refer to himself as "I" and "me"
in Acts 13:2?
- The NWT translates the Greek words "ego
eimi" as "I am" every time it appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19,
15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been". What is
the reason for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi" was
translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse in which it
appears, how would Jn 8:58 read?
- In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is
"coming quickly", says of himself, " I am the Alpha and the Omega, the
first and the last, the beginning and the end". In Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who
"became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever", refers to himself as the
first and the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the
Omega, the beginning and the end ...". God is also referred to as the
"first" and the "last" in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be
since by definition of these words there can only be one first and one last?
- Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "all
things", but in Isa 44:24, God says that he "by myself" created the heavens
and the earth and asks the question "Who was with me?" when the heavens and the
earth were created. How can this be since if Jesus was created by God, then he would have
been with God when everything else was created?
- Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that
"... All [other] things have been created through him and FOR HIM". If Jesus was
Michael the Archangel at the time of creation, would an angel have created all things for
himself? Isa 43:7 says God created "everyone ... for my OWN glory...".
- The Watchtower Society teaches that the
144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken
literally, where then does the Bible say that the 144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5-
8).
- If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a
distinction between the body and the soul in Mt 10:28?
- The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the
Word was WITH God, and the Word was a god". How can the Word (Jesus) be "a
god" if God says in Deut 32:39, "See now that I-I am he, and there are NO gods
together WITH me ..."?
- Jesus Christ is referred to as "Mighty
God" in Isa 9:6 ("For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son
given to us ... And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God ...").
Jehovah is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 10:20-21. How can this be if there
is only one God (1Cor 8:4, Isa 43:10, 44:6)?
- If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with
both hands together over his head, why does Jn 20:25 say "...Unless I see in his
hands the print of the nailS ...", indicating that there was more than one nail used
for his hands?
- Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to
you, ..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word
"you" every time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word
"today". Why is the comma placed after "today" instead of after
"you" in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was
consistent with the translation of this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears
(see
- concordance), and the comma was placed after
the word "you", how would it read?
- The NWT translates the Greek word
"esti" as "is" in almost every instance in the New Testament (Mt
26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc.). See Greek-English Interlinear. Why does the NWT
translate this Greek word as "means" in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19?
Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word "esti"? If the NWT was
consistent and translated the Greek word "esti" as "is" in these
verses, what would these verses say?
- In Jn 20:28, Thomas refers to Jesus in Greek
as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This translates literally as "the Lord
of me and THE God of me". Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come
to this realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn't
Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous statement?
- If Christ will not have a visible return to
earth, then how will he be seen by "ALL the tribes of the earth" (Mt 24:30) and
by "EVERY eye" (Rev 1:7) when he returns?
- If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active
force, how could he: Be referred to as "he" and "him" in Jn 16:7-8 and
Jn 16:13-14; Bear witness - Jn 15:26; Feel hurt - Isa 63:10; Be blasphemed against - Mk
3:29; Say things - Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12, 21:11, Heb10:15-17, Rev 2:7; Desire
- Gal 5:17; Be outraged - Heb 10:29; Search -1Cor 2:10; Comfort - Acts 9:31; Be loved -
Rom 15:30 ; Be lied to and be God - Acts 5:3-4?
- What is the meaning of Rev 14:9-11, which
says, "... If anyone worships the wild beast ... he shall be tormented with fire and
sulphur ... And the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever ...". Where could
"anyone" be "tormented ... forever and ever"?
- Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All
things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into
existence". How could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into
existence through him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would
have had to create himself.
- If the spirit of a man has no existence apart
from the body, why does Stephen just before his death in Acts 7:59, pray to Jesus to
"receive my spirit"? How could Jesus receive Stephen's spirit if a man's spirit
ceases to exist when the body dies?
- If the great crowd is to have everlasting life
on paradise EARTH, why does 1Thess 4:17 say, "...we the living who are surviving
will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and thus
we shall always be with the Lord"?
- If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people
who have a heavenly hope, and a great crowd of people who have another hope of everlasting
life on paradise earth, why does Paul say that there is only ONE hope (Eph 4:4), instead
of two?
- If there is no conscious awareness after
death, how could the "spirits in prison" be preached to by Christ after his
death (1Pet 3:18-20) and how could the good news be "declared also to the dead"
(1Pet 4:6)?
- In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word
"other", even though it doesn't appear in the original Greek (see Gr-Engl
Interlinear). What is the reason for inserting this word? Is the word "Jehovah"
a name? See Ex 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse read if the word
"other" had not been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the
Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.
- Heb 9:28, speaking of Christ, says "...
and the second time he appears..." How can Christ APPEAR a second time if he will not
have a visible return to earth?
- Amos 4:11 says, "'I caused an overthrow
among you people, like God's overthrow of Sodom and Gomorrah. And you came to be like a
log snatched out of [the] burning; but you did not come back to me,' is the utterance of
Jehovah." How can Jehovah speaking in this verse refer to another person as God
("... like GOD'S overthrow of Sodom ...")?
- In Rev 19:1, where does it say that the
"great crowd" will be?
- If Christians are persecuted for the sake of
Jehovah's name, why did Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted for
the sake of his (Jesus') name instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12, 17, Jn
15:21, and Acts 9:16)?
- In Col 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word
"other" 4 times even though it is not in the original Greek (see Gr-Engl
interlinear). Why is the word "other" inserted? How would these verses read if
the word "other" had not been inserted?
- In 2Pet 1:1, the NWT inserts the word
"the". Why is it inserted? How would the verse read if the word "the"
was not inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? (See Prov
30:5-6).
- In the sermon on the mount, when Jesus was
addressing the "great crowd" (Lk 6:17), why did he tell them in Lk 6:22-23,
"...your reward is great in heaven ..."?
- In Mt 1:23, who is Matthew referring to here
that has been given the name which means "With Us Is God"?
- In Rev 14:13, how can the dead be
"happy" and find "rest" if there is no conscious awareness after
death?
- If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with
both hands together over his head, instead of on a cross with both hands outstretched, why
does Mt 27:37 say that the sign "This is Jesus the King of the Jews" was
"posted above his HEAD" instead of being posted above his hands? How could
ithave been posted above his head if his arms were stretched out over his head?
- In Lk 4:12, the NWT translates
"kyrios" as "Jehovah", which makes the verse read "... 'You
shall not put Jehovah your God to the test.'" See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Why is kyrios
translated as "Jehovah" in this verse? Was the devil, in Lk 4:9-11, putting
Jehovah to the test or JESUS to the test?
- The Bible says that ONLY God is our savior
(Hos 13:4, Isa 43:11,45:21, etc.). How can it be then, that the Bible repeatedly says that
Jesus Christ is our savior (Lk 2:11, Phil 3:20, Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet 1:1, 2:20, 3:18,
etc.)?
- Referring to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no
conscious awareness after death, how could Sheol "... become agitated at you in order
to meet you on coming in..." (v.9), how could the souls in Sheol "... speak up
and say to you..." (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol when "...seeing you
will gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you, [saying,] 'Is this
the man'..." (v. 16-17), and how would you be aware that this was happening?
- Heb 3:1 refers to "holy brothers,
partakers of the heavenly calling". In Mk 3:35, Jesus says, "Whoever does the
will of God, this one is my brother ...". Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever
does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling. How can
this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven?
- Heb 11:16, in speaking about some of the
faithful people of the Old Testament (Abel, Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they
are reaching out for a better [place], that is, one belonging to heaven..." and,
"... their God for he has made a city ready for them." The footnote on the word
"city" refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22 and Rev 21:2. How can this be
since according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only people who will go to
heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from people who lived after
Christ died?
- Rev 20:10 says, "And the Devil ... the
wild beast and the false prophet [already were]; and they will be tormented day and night
forever and ever."Where will the devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet be
"tormented day and night forever and ever"?
- In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus
showed his disciples the wounds in his body as proof of his resurrection. If Jesus' body
had been destroyed by God after he died, how could Jesus show the disciples his body which
had the wounds in his hands, feet, and side and claim that he is not just a spirit,
"because a spirit does not have flesh and bones just as you behold that I have"
(Lk 24:39)?
- If Christ was created by God and was the
wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then before Jesus would have been created, God
would have had to have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever
been without wisdom?
- Rev 7:11 says that "before the
throne" is in heaven where "all the angels were standing". Rev 14:2-3 says
"And I heard a sound out of heaven ... And they were singing as if a new song before
the throne ...". Rev 7:9 says, "... look, a great crowd ... standing before the
throne...". Rev 7:14-15 says, "...There are the ones that come out of the great
tribulation ... That is why they are before the throne of God ...". Therefore, if
"before the throne " means in heaven (Rev 7:11, 14:2-3), and the "great
crowd" is "before the throne" (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15), where does that mean that
the great crowd will be?
- If Jesus Christ is Michael the Archangel, how
can Mt 25:31 say, "When the Son of man arrives in his glory, and ALL the angels with
him, ...". Since "all the angels" would certainly include Michael the
Archangel, is it possible that Jesus could return with himself?
- In Lk 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and
Jacob be "all living to him (God)", since they all died hundreds of years before
Jesus said this?
- If the soul dies when the body dies, how could
the "souls" of Rev 6:9- 11, who were of those who had been
"slaughtered" (i.e., killed), cry out "with a loud voice, saying: 'Until
when Sovereign Lord ..."?
- In Mt 28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to
baptize "people of all the nations ...in the name of the Father and of the Son and of
the holy spirit". Why would the disciples be instructed to baptize in the name of
anybody or anything who was not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses follow the command of Jesus
and baptize "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit"?
- If the human soul IS the person, how could the
soul go out of a person (Gen 35:18) or come back into a person (1Kings 17:21)?
- The Watchtower Society teaches that the earth
will never be destroyed or depopulated. How can it be, then, that God says in Isa 51:6,
"... the earth itself will wear out, and its inhabitants will die like a mere gnat
...", and that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, "Heaven and earth will pass
away...", and that John says in Rev 21:1 that he saw "... a new heaven and a NEW
earth, for the former heaven and the FORMER earth had passed away, and the sea is no
more."?
- Referring to Lk 12:4-5, what would be left of
a person after they were killed that could be thrown into Gehenna?
- Who or what does the spirit of Christ (Phil
1:19, Gal 4:6, Rom 8:9) refer to? In Gal 4:6, how is it possible that the spirit of Christ
could come into our hearts? How is it possible that the spirit of CHRIST could reside in
someone? If what the Watchtower Society teaches is true, how could Paul make this
statement if Christ was a spirit person residing in heaven?
- In Jn 8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your
father rejoiced greatly in the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and
rejoiced". Since Abraham died hundreds of years before Jesus said this, how could
Jesus say that Abraham "saw it and rejoiced", if there is no conscious awareness
after death
- In Jn 6:51, Jesus says that a person must eat
"of this bread" in order to "live forever", and that "the bread
that I give IS my flesh". In Jn 6:63, Jesus says "... Unless you eat the flesh
of the son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in yourselves." In Jn
6:54-55, Jesus says, "He that feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has everlasting
life..." and "... for myflesh is true food and my blood is true drink." Do
you partake of the flesh of Christ , as Jesus commanded, in order to have life in yourself
and in order to live forever?
- Every true Christian would agree that we
should follow the commands of God. In Mk 9:7, God the Father commands us to listen to
Jesus. Do you follow this command and listen to Jesus? After all, Jesus died for your
personal sins (1Jn 2:2, 1Pet 2:24). Jesus tells us to go directly to him (Mt 11:28-30),
and the Father commanded us to listen to Jesus. Why? Because JESUS gives us everlasting
life (Jn 10:28), and so that JESUS will enter our house and be with us and give us the
right to sit on his throne (Rev 3:20- 21). Do you pray to Jesus as Paul and the early
Christians did (1Cor 1:2)? Do you partake of the flesh of Christ as Jesus commanded (Jn
6:51)? If not, then are you following the command of the Father who said "Listen to
him"?
- As many are aware JW have for years had a
two-tier class system in place in fact, when I was at bethel Freddy use to tell us for yrs
they called them "Secondary Christian" aka "second class' anyway according
to the boys in writing God put this second class system in FULL SWING OR place in 1935. so
this afternoon I get a call from this non-JW I have known for some yrs. well I told him
the next time a JW stopped by to ask them this question. "How do you prove from the
bible that 1935 was the yr for the selection to heaven stopped due to being filled"
well on sat, 2 friends stopped by his house in service he and his wife invited them in and
allowed them to go through their little funky CANNED presentation from this month's KM
well after they finished they said we have a question. and they asked them to show them
from their KJV or their JW bible where it indicates that in 1935 the door to heaven was
shut? well we all know what happened they could not take them to the bible and show them
that, so they asked to return on Sunday with someone who was more INFORMED ON EXPLAINING
THE DEEEEEEEPER THINGS IN THE BIBLE so they agreed well today the bro returned with one of
the ELDERS YEP they get to COUNT it as a RV anyway the elder prepared himself before they
came they have a very up-to-date Hall you see they have a computer in the Elder's Office
at the hall so the elder printed out a ton of WT publications to take over. I guess to
show the non-JW that it does states 1935 as the year the door was closed "IN
PRINT" so due to the fact that I had prepared him the non-JW was ready so the elder
went into the talk that Rutherford gave in DC, etc. and showed him all the articles that
stated the door shut in 1935. so the non-JW was ready with his questions. SO HE ASKED HIM
a series of questions , 1. Were ANY of the publications that stated 1935 as the year
INSPIRED 2. Was the Writer of those articles INSPIRED OR 3. WAS J.F. Rutherford INSPIRED
WHEN he gave that talk in DC stating that 1935 was the date? , well we all know what the
poor elder had to say to ALL those questions 1. NO 2. NO 3. NO SO THEN MY MAN said he
asked the elder again could you take me to the inspired word of god using either your
bible or mine and show me where it indicates 1935 as the yr for the door to heaven was
shut? once again the poor elder couldn't do it. so he asked him since you can't take me
directly to the bible and show me unlike if I asked is stealing ok then would you agree
that it calls for some form of INTERPRETATION OUR DEAR ELDER MADE A serious mistake here
for he said yes it does. so my dear friend asked him who in the JW religion does the
interpretation, in my faith it is the Pope, who does it for you? well the bro told him the
FDS help us to understand the deeper meaning of things. so he asked him "are you
saying that they INTERPRET THE BIBLE FOR YOU" and the elder said - yes they do. you
see, I had already told him that JW normally say if they are UP-TO -DATE: "we don't
try to interpret the bible for the bible says interpretation belong to Jah" so the
dear elder opened mouth insert foot. so the non-JW told him that he had spoken to a former
Bethelite who worked at the World Headquarters of JW aka "1" who indicated to
him that as JW we don't do interpretations since it only belongs to Jehovah. so he said at
this point the poor elder just started to get bent out of shape, he was lost, so the elder
told him that what he needed was A BIBLE STUDY, THIS WAY HE COULD LEARN THE DEEEEEEPER
THINGS IN the bible but first he needed to learn the basics so my man asked him, "If
I have a bible study will I then be able to turn to the inspired word of god and find the
1935 date showing that god shut the door ? and the poor elder told him- no he would not,
BUT you would understand how we came to understand that 1935 was the date according to the
bible. you got to feel sorry for the dear elder and especially the poor publisher who saw
an elder bring a ton of UNINSPIRED printouts and couldn't just take the Word of God and
answer the man question so the next time a JW stops by ask for the inspired word of god
bible text that says 1935 the door was shut don't settle for anything less than the real
inspired word of god not some Knock off brand called the WT publications Is it not amazing
how when a non-JW knows just a little about the org and wt teachings how they can bring
your avg 20-40 yr JW to his knees just by asking a few simple questions how sad
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