they know the answer proves their doctrine wrong!
speak the truth in Love...
Jw's advice for themselves.
"How would you feel if
proof is given that what you believe is wrong? For example, say that you
were in a car, traveling for the first time to a certain place. You have a
road map, but you have not taken the time to check it carefully. Someone
has told you the road to take. You trust him, sincerely believing that the
way he has directed you is correct. But suppose it is not? What if someone
points out the error? What if he, by referring to your own map, shows that
you are on the wrong road? Would pride or stubbornness prevent you from
admitting that you are on the wrong road? Well, then, if you learn from an
examination of your Bible that you are traveling a wrong religious road,
be willing to change. Avoid the broad road to destruction; get on the
narrow road to life."
You Can Live Forever In
Paradise On Earth,
that Jehovah's Witnesses do not like to be asked.
- If the organization did
not actually prophecy the end in 1925 and 1975, then how come so many
Witnesses left the faith immediately afterwards? ("They lost
roughly three-quarters of the movement between 1925 and 1928, then
suffered huge losses after 1975, when the end didn't come as they had
implied over and over again," said Jim Penton, an ex-Witness who
writes entries on Jehovah's Witnesses for the Encyclopedia Americana.)
- If the Watchtower
organization rejects others calling them "inspired" yet the
Watchtower organization does call themselves "God's
Spirit-directed Prophet" what is the difference? Is there such a
thing as an "uninspired prophet"?
- Has the Society ever
taught anything scripturally incorrect?
- Might the Society be
teaching anything scripturally incorrect now?
- Since the Organization has
received "new light" regarding the 1914 generation, and
completely changed their view on this, does this mean that all the
former Jehovah's witnesses who were disfellowshipped years ago for the
same view the organization is now teaching will automatically be
accepted into fellowship again? Were these Ex-Jw's in fact
disfellowshipped for truth and knew things that the governing body did
- Can Jehovah's Witnesses
hold and discuss openly with other Jehovah's Witnesses opinions that
differ from orthodox Watch Tower doctrine?
- Can individuals read &
understand the Bible alone, or do they need an organization and it's
publications to do so?
- How do you prove from the
Bible that 1935 was the year for the selection to heaven stopped due
to being filled? What is the difference between a Catholic appealing
to "what the organization tells him" about December 25 being
the date of Jesus birthday and a Jw' appealing to "what the
organization tells him" about the date 1935? Is it not
hypocritical when you chide the "poor deluded Catholic" that
his faith cannot find a Bible passage to support it, when the same
goes for you and 1935?
- How do you know that there
were any vacancies, if any, in the 144,000 class if Jesus offered this
to first century Christians? How can the organization know the exact
number of vacancies today without any records from the first century?
- Why are you called,
"Jehovah's Witnesses" and not "Christians"? Since
Jehovah's Witnesses appeal to Isa 43:12; 44:8 for scriptural support
that they should be called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" then what
was the "new name" prophesied in Isa 62:2? Can't be
"Jehovah's Witnesses", for God already used it 20 chapters
earlier. Could the new name be "Christian" after our savior
- Why would the name God
gave to His people not be "Christians" since Acts 11:26
says, "The disciples were first called Christians in
Antioch"? Why is the name "Jehovah's Witness" found
nowhere in the New Testament, if that is God's divine name for His
people under the new covenant? Why would God wait almost 2000 years to
suddenly start using the name "Jehovah's Witness". Does this
mean that first century Christians were not know as Jehovah's
- If the name Jehovah is so
important, then why is it never used in the entire Greek New
Testament? If men edited out the name of God, "YHWH" when
they copied the New Testament, as only the Watchtower organization
claims, then how can we have any confidence in any of the New
Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or the Watchtower
organization as unreliable?
- If the name
"Jehovah" is so important, then why does Acts 4:12 say,
"There is salvation in no one else; for their is no other name
[v10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that has been given among men, by
which we must be saved"? Would this not have been the logical
place for God to have used the name "YHWH"?
- What is the correct
spelling of God's proper name "Yahweh" or
"Jehovah"? If Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that
"Yahweh" is more proper, why do they misspell is
"Jehovah"? If the name of God is so important, then should
you not only pronounce it correctly, but spell it correctly too? Is
not spelling more important than pronunciation?
- Since the Jehovah's
Witness organization currently rejects most of the teachings of its
founder Charles Taze Russell (who was president of the organization
from 1879-1916), and since they also reject "Judge" Joseph
Franklin Rutherford, who succeeded Russell as president from 1916 -
1942, how can we be sure that in 25 more years, Jehovah's Witnesses
won't also reject the current president, Milton G. Henschel (1992 -
present), as they did Russell and Rutherford?
- What kind of confidence
can anyone have in an organization that rejected its founder and first
two presidents for the first 63 years of its existence? This
represents about 53% of the time they have existed!
- Since the Watchtower
organization claims "apostolic succession" who was it that
"passed the torch of God's Spirit" to C. T. Russel when he
founded the organization? What was the name of this individual?
- In the NWT, every time the
Greek word "proskuneo" is used in reference to God, it
is translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn
4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to
Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9,
28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in
the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word
"prosekunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11,
11:16, and 19:4 and used with reference to Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9,
and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency? If the NWT was
consistent in translating "proskuneo" as
"worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ
- The NWT translates the
Greek word "kyrios" as "Jehovah" more than
25 times in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14,
Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, 1Thess 5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the
word "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear in the
Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion)
as "Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1,
and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)?
- To what was Jesus
referring to by the term "this temple" in Jn 2:18- 19? See
- If the Holy Spirit is
God's impersonal active force, why does he directly speak and refer to
himself as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2?
- The NWT translates the
Greek words "ego eimi" as "I am" every time
it appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58
where it is translated as "I have been". What is the reason
for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi" was
translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other
verse in which it appears, how would Jn 8:58 read?
- In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus
Christ, the one who is "coming quickly", says of himself,
" I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the
beginning and the end". In Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who
"became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever",
refers to himself as the first and the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of
God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and
the end ...". God is also referred to as the "first"
and the "last" in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be
since by definition of these words there can only be one first and one
- Jn 1:3 says that Jesus
created "all things", but in Isa 44:24, God says that he
"by myself" created the heavens and the earth and asks the
question "Who was with me?" when the heavens and the earth
were created. How can this be since if Jesus was created by God, then
he would have been with God when everything else was created?
- Col 1:16, in talking about
Jesus, says that "... All [other] things have been created
through him and FOR HIM". If Jesus was Michael the Archangel at
the time of creation, would an angel have created all things for
himself? Isa 43:7 says God created "everyone ... for my OWN
- The Watchtower Society
teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If
chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the
Bible say that the 144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5- 8).
- If the soul is the body,
why does Jesus make a distinction between the body and the soul in Mt
- The NWT translates Jn 1:1
as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the Word was a god".
How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god" if God says in Deut
32:39, "See now that I-I am he, and there are NO gods together
WITH me ..."?
- Jesus Christ is referred
to as "Mighty God" in Isa 9:6 ("For there has been a
child born to us, there has been a son given to us ... And his name
will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God ..."). Jehovah is
referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 10:20-21. How can this be
if there is only one God (1Cor 8:4, Isa 43:10, 44:6)?
- If Jesus was executed on a
torture stake, with both hands together over his head, why does Jn
20:25 say "...Unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS
...", indicating that there was more than one nail used for his
- Jesus uses the phrase
"Truly I say to you, ..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the
NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every time
except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word
"today". Why is the comma placed after "today"
instead of after "you" in this verse? If the translation of
this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation of this
phrase in all the other verses in which it appears (see
- concordance), and the
comma was placed after the word "you", how would it read?
- The NWT translates the
Greek word "esti" as "is" in almost every
instance in the New Testament (Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38,
etc.). See Greek-English Interlinear. Why does the NWT translate this
Greek word as "means" in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk
22:19? Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word "esti"?
If the NWT was consistent and translated the Greek word "esti"
as "is" in these verses, what would these verses say?
- In Jn 20:28, Thomas refers
to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This
translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me".
Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this
realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas,
why didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a
- If Christ will not have a
visible return to earth, then how will he be seen by "ALL the
tribes of the earth" (Mt 24:30) and by "EVERY eye" (Rev
1:7) when he returns?
- If the Holy Spirit is
God's impersonal active force, how could he: Be referred to as
"he" and "him" in Jn 16:7-8 and Jn 16:13-14; Bear
witness - Jn 15:26; Feel hurt - Isa 63:10; Be blasphemed against - Mk
3:29; Say things - Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12, 21:11,
Heb10:15-17, Rev 2:7; Desire - Gal 5:17; Be outraged - Heb 10:29;
Search -1Cor 2:10; Comfort - Acts 9:31; Be loved - Rom 15:30 ; Be lied
to and be God - Acts 5:3-4?
- What is the meaning of Rev
14:9-11, which says, "... If anyone worships the wild beast ...
he shall be tormented with fire and sulphur ... And the smoke of their
torment ascends forever and ever ...". Where could
"anyone" be "tormented ... forever and ever"?
- Jn 1:3 says in reference
to Christ, "All things came into existence through him, and apart
from him not even one thing came into existence". How could
Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into existence
through him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3,
Jesus would have had to create himself.
- If the spirit of a man has
no existence apart from the body, why does Stephen just before his
death in Acts 7:59, pray to Jesus to "receive my spirit"?
How could Jesus receive Stephen's spirit if a man's spirit ceases to
exist when the body dies?
- If the great crowd is to
have everlasting life on paradise EARTH, why does 1Thess 4:17 say,
"...we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be
caught away in clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and thus we shall
always be with the Lord"?
- If there are 144,000
spirit anointed people who have a heavenly hope, and a great crowd of
people who have another hope of everlasting life on paradise earth,
why does Paul say that there is only ONE hope (Eph 4:4), instead of
- If there is no conscious
awareness after death, how could the "spirits in prison" be
preached to by Christ after his death (1Pet 3:18-20) and how could the
good news be "declared also to the dead" (1Pet 4:6)?
- In Phil 2:9, the NWT
inserts the word "other", even though it doesn't appear in
the original Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). What is the reason for
inserting this word? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Ex
6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse read if the word
"other" had not been inserted? What does scripture say about
adding words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.
- Heb 9:28, speaking of
Christ, says "... and the second time he appears..." How can
Christ APPEAR a second time if he will not have a visible return to
- Amos 4:11 says, "'I
caused an overthrow among you people, like God's overthrow of Sodom
and Gomorrah. And you came to be like a log snatched out of [the]
burning; but you did not come back to me,' is the utterance of
Jehovah." How can Jehovah speaking in this verse refer to another
person as God ("... like GOD'S overthrow of Sodom ...")?
- In Rev 19:1, where does it
say that the "great crowd" will be?
- If Christians are
persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did Christ tell the
first Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake of his
(Jesus') name instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12, 17,
Jn 15:21, and Acts 9:16)?
- In Col 1:15-17, the NWT
inserts the word "other" 4 times even though it is not in
the original Greek (see Gr-Engl interlinear). Why is the word
"other" inserted? How would these verses read if the word
"other" had not been inserted?
- In 2Pet 1:1, the NWT
inserts the word "the". Why is it inserted? How would the
verse read if the word "the" was not inserted? What does
scripture say about adding words to the Bible? (See Prov 30:5-6).
- In the sermon on the
mount, when Jesus was addressing the "great crowd" (Lk
6:17), why did he tell them in Lk 6:22-23, "...your reward is
great in heaven ..."?
- In Mt 1:23, who is Matthew
referring to here that has been given the name which means "With
Us Is God"?
- In Rev 14:13, how can the
dead be "happy" and find "rest" if there is no
conscious awareness after death?
- If Jesus was executed on a
torture stake, with both hands together over his head, instead of on a
cross with both hands outstretched, why does Mt 27:37 say that the
sign "This is Jesus the King of the Jews" was "posted
above his HEAD" instead of being posted above his hands? How
could ithave been posted above his head if his arms were stretched out
over his head?
- In Lk 4:12, the NWT
translates "kyrios" as "Jehovah", which
makes the verse read "... 'You shall not put Jehovah your God to
the test.'" See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Why is kyrios translated as
"Jehovah" in this verse? Was the devil, in Lk 4:9-11,
putting Jehovah to the test or JESUS to the test?
- The Bible says that ONLY
God is our savior (Hos 13:4, Isa 43:11,45:21, etc.). How can it be
then, that the Bible repeatedly says that Jesus Christ is our savior (Lk
2:11, Phil 3:20, Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet 1:1, 2:20, 3:18, etc.)?
- Referring to Isa 14:9-17,
if there is no conscious awareness after death, how could Sheol
"... become agitated at you in order to meet you on coming
in..." (v.9), how could the souls in Sheol "... speak up and
say to you..." (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol when
"...seeing you will gaze even at you; they will give close
examination even to you, [saying,] 'Is this the man'..." (v.
16-17), and how would you be aware that this was happening?
- Heb 3:1 refers to
"holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling". In Mk
3:35, Jesus says, "Whoever does the will of God, this one is my
brother ...". Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does the
will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly
calling. How can this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only
144,000 people go to heaven?
- Heb 11:16, in speaking
about some of the faithful people of the Old Testament (Abel, Noah,
Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they are reaching out for a better
[place], that is, one belonging to heaven..." and, "...
their God for he has made a city ready for them." The footnote on
the word "city" refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22
and Rev 21:2. How can this be since according to the teachings of the
Watchtower Society, the only people who will go to heaven are the
144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from people who lived
after Christ died?
- Rev 20:10 says, "And
the Devil ... the wild beast and the false prophet [already were]; and
they will be tormented day and night forever and ever."Where will
the devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet be "tormented
day and night forever and ever"?
- In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn
20:26-27, Jesus showed his disciples the wounds in his body as proof
of his resurrection. If Jesus' body had been destroyed by God after he
died, how could Jesus show the disciples his body which had the wounds
in his hands, feet, and side and claim that he is not just a spirit,
"because a spirit does not have flesh and bones just as you
behold that I have" (Lk 24:39)?
- If Christ was created by
God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then before
Jesus would have been created, God would have had to have been without
wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been without
- Rev 7:11 says that
"before the throne" is in heaven where "all the angels
were standing". Rev 14:2-3 says "And I heard a sound out of
heaven ... And they were singing as if a new song before the throne
...". Rev 7:9 says, "... look, a great crowd ... standing
before the throne...". Rev 7:14-15 says, "...There are the
ones that come out of the great tribulation ... That is why they are
before the throne of God ...". Therefore, if "before the
throne " means in heaven (Rev 7:11, 14:2-3), and the "great
crowd" is "before the throne" (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15), where
does that mean that the great crowd will be?
- If Jesus Christ is Michael
the Archangel, how can Mt 25:31 say, "When the Son of man arrives
in his glory, and ALL the angels with him, ...". Since "all
the angels" would certainly include Michael the Archangel, is it
possible that Jesus could return with himself?
- In Lk 20:37-38, how could
Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be "all living to him (God)",
since they all died hundreds of years before Jesus said this?
- If the soul dies when the
body dies, how could the "souls" of Rev 6:9- 11, who were of
those who had been "slaughtered" (i.e., killed), cry out
"with a loud voice, saying: 'Until when Sovereign Lord ..."?
- In Mt 28:19, Jesus tells
his disciples to baptize "people of all the nations ...in the
name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit". Why
would the disciples be instructed to baptize in the name of anybody or
anything who was not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses follow the command of
Jesus and baptize "in the name of the Father and of the Son and
of the holy spirit"?
- If the human soul IS the
person, how could the soul go out of a person (Gen 35:18) or come back
into a person (1Kings 17:21)?
- The Watchtower Society
teaches that the earth will never be destroyed or depopulated. How can
it be, then, that God says in Isa 51:6, "... the earth itself
will wear out, and its inhabitants will die like a mere gnat
...", and that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, "Heaven and earth
will pass away...", and that John says in Rev 21:1 that he saw
"... a new heaven and a NEW earth, for the former heaven and the
FORMER earth had passed away, and the sea is no more."?
- Referring to Lk 12:4-5,
what would be left of a person after they were killed that could be
thrown into Gehenna?
- Who or what does the
spirit of Christ (Phil 1:19, Gal 4:6, Rom 8:9) refer to? In Gal 4:6,
how is it possible that the spirit of Christ could come into our
hearts? How is it possible that the spirit of CHRIST could reside in
someone? If what the Watchtower Society teaches is true, how could
Paul make this statement if Christ was a spirit person residing in
- In Jn 8:56, Jesus says,
"Abraham your father rejoiced greatly in the prospect of seeing
my day, and he saw it and rejoiced". Since Abraham died hundreds
of years before Jesus said this, how could Jesus say that Abraham
"saw it and rejoiced", if there is no conscious awareness
- In Jn 6:51, Jesus says
that a person must eat "of this bread" in order to
"live forever", and that "the bread that I give IS my
flesh". In Jn 6:63, Jesus says "... Unless you eat the flesh
of the son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in
yourselves." In Jn 6:54-55, Jesus says, "He that feeds on my
flesh and drinks my blood has everlasting life..." and "...
for myflesh is true food and my blood is true drink." Do you
partake of the flesh of Christ , as Jesus commanded, in order to have
life in yourself and in order to live forever?
- Every true Christian would
agree that we should follow the commands of God. In Mk 9:7, God the
Father commands us to listen to Jesus. Do you follow this command and
listen to Jesus? After all, Jesus died for your personal sins (1Jn
2:2, 1Pet 2:24). Jesus tells us to go directly to him (Mt 11:28-30),
and the Father commanded us to listen to Jesus. Why? Because JESUS
gives us everlasting life (Jn 10:28), and so that JESUS will enter our
house and be with us and give us the right to sit on his throne (Rev
3:20- 21). Do you pray to Jesus as Paul and the early Christians did
(1Cor 1:2)? Do you partake of the flesh of Christ as Jesus commanded (Jn
6:51)? If not, then are you following the command of the Father who
said "Listen to him"?
- As many are aware JW have
for years had a two-tier class system in place in fact, when I was at
bethel Freddy use to tell us for yrs they called them "Secondary
Christian" aka "second class' anyway according to the boys
in writing God put this second class system in FULL SWING OR place in
1935. so this afternoon I get a call from this non-JW I have known for
some yrs. well I told him the next time a JW stopped by to ask them
this question. "How do you prove from the bible that 1935 was the
yr for the selection to heaven stopped due to being filled" well
on sat, 2 friends stopped by his house in service he and his wife
invited them in and allowed them to go through their little funky
CANNED presentation from this month's KM well after they finished they
said we have a question. and they asked them to show them from their
KJV or their JW bible where it indicates that in 1935 the door to
heaven was shut? well we all know what happened they could not take
them to the bible and show them that, so they asked to return on
Sunday with someone who was more INFORMED ON EXPLAINING THE
DEEEEEEEPER THINGS IN THE BIBLE so they agreed well today the bro
returned with one of the ELDERS YEP they get to COUNT it as a RV
anyway the elder prepared himself before they came they have a very
up-to-date Hall you see they have a computer in the Elder's Office at
the hall so the elder printed out a ton of WT publications to take
over. I guess to show the non-JW that it does states 1935 as the year
the door was closed "IN PRINT" so due to the fact that I had
prepared him the non-JW was ready so the elder went into the talk that
Rutherford gave in DC, etc. and showed him all the articles that
stated the door shut in 1935. so the non-JW was ready with his
questions. SO HE ASKED HIM a series of questions , 1. Were ANY of the
publications that stated 1935 as the year INSPIRED 2. Was the Writer
of those articles INSPIRED OR 3. WAS J.F. Rutherford INSPIRED WHEN he
gave that talk in DC stating that 1935 was the date? , well we all
know what the poor elder had to say to ALL those questions 1. NO 2. NO
3. NO SO THEN MY MAN said he asked the elder again could you take me
to the inspired word of God using either your bible or mine and show
me where it indicates 1935 as the yr for the door to heaven was shut?
once again the poor elder couldn't do it. so he asked him since you
can't take me directly to the bible and show me unlike if I asked is
stealing ok then would you agree that it calls for some form of
INTERPRETATION OUR DEAR ELDER MADE A serious mistake here for he said
yes it does. so my dear friend asked him who in the JW religion does
the interpretation, in my faith it is the Pope, who does it for you?
well the bro told him the FDS help us to understand the deeper meaning
of things. so he asked him "are you saying that they INTERPRET
THE BIBLE FOR YOU" and the elder said - yes they do. you see, I
had already told him that JW normally say if they are UP-TO -DATE:
"we don't try to interpret the bible for the bible says
interpretation belong to Jah" so the dear elder opened mouth
insert foot. so the non-JW told him that he had spoken to a former
Bethelite who worked at the World Headquarters of JW aka "1"
who indicated to him that as JW we don't do interpretations since it
only belongs to Jehovah. so he said at this point the poor elder just
started to get bent out of shape, he was lost, so the elder told him
that what he needed was A BIBLE STUDY, THIS WAY HE COULD LEARN THE
DEEEEEEPER THINGS IN the bible but first he needed to learn the basics
so my man asked him, "If I have a bible study will I then be able
to turn to the inspired word of God and find the 1935 date showing
that God shut the door ? and the poor elder told him- no he would not,
BUT you would understand how we came to understand that 1935 was the
date according to the bible. you got to feel sorry for the dear elder
and especially the poor publisher who saw an elder bring a ton of
UNINSPIRED printouts and couldn't just take the Word of God and answer
the man question so the next time a JW stops by ask for the inspired
word of God bible text that says 1935 the door was shut don't settle
for anything less than the real inspired word of God
not some Knock
off brand called the WT publications Is it not amazing how when a non-JW
knows just a little about the org and wt teachings how they can bring
your avg 20-40 yr JW to his knees just by asking a few simple
questions how sad
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